ISTQB certification exam questions for chapter Test management

Questions
Q1: Which of the following is a MAJOR task of evaluating exit criteria and reporting?

A    Writing a test summary report for stakeholders

B    Logging the outcome of test execution

C    Repeating test activities as a result of action taken for each discrepancy.

D    Evaluating testability of the requirements and system

Q2: Which of the following activities would NORMALLY be undertaken during test planning?
a. Scheduling test analysis and design.
b. Designing Test Conditions.
c. Monitoring test progress.
d. Identifying the objectives of testing.
e. Evaluating test tools.
f. Selecting test metrics for monitoring and control.

A    b, c and d

B    a, d and f

C    a, d and e

D    b, c and f

Q3: Why can be tester dependent on configuration management?

A    Because configuration management assures that we know the exact version of the testware and the test object

B    Because test execution is not allowed to proceed without the consent of the change control board

C    Because changes in the test object are always subject to configuration management

D    Because configuration management assures the right configuration of the test tools

Q4: Why is it necessary to define a Test Strategy?

A    As there are many different ways to test software, thought must be given to decide what will be the most effective way to test the project on hand.

B    Starting testing without prior planning leads to chaotic and inefficient test project

C    A strategy is needed to inform the project management how the test team will schedule the test-cycles

D    Software failure may cause loss of money, time, business reputation, and in extreme cases injury and death. It is therefore critical to have a proper test strategy in place.

Q5: Which of the following is not a part of Configuration Management?

A    Controlled library access

B    Record of changes to

C    documentation over time

D    Auditing conformance to ISO9001

E    Identification of test versions

Q6: Which of the following is the most important difference between the metrics-based approach and the expert-based approach to test estimation?

A    The metrics-based approach is more accurate than the expert-based approach.

B    The metrics-based approach uses calculations from historical data while the expert based approach relies on team wisdom.

C    The metrics-based approach can be used to verify an estimate created using the expert-based approach, but not vice versa.

D    The expert-based approach takes longer than the metrics-based approach.

Q7: A configuration management system would NOT normally provide:

A    Linkage of customer requirements to version numbers.

B    Facilities to compare test results with expected results.

C    The precise differences in versions of software component source code.

D    Restricted access to the source code library.

Q8: The following list contains risks that have been identified for a software product to be developed. Which of these risks is an example of a product risk?

A    Not enough qualified testers to complete the planned tests

B    Software delivery is behind schedule

C    Threat to a patient’s life

D    3rd party supplier does not supply as stipulated

Q9: A test engineer is testing a Video Player (VCR), and logs the following report:
Title: Fast Forward stops after 2 minutes. It happens every time
Expected result: Fast forward continues until the end of the tape
Severity: High
Priority: Urgent
What important information did the engineer leave out?

A    Identification (Software and hardware) of the VCR

B    Actual result

C    History of the report

D    Ideas for the test case improvement

Q10: Which set of metrics can be used for monitoring of the test execution?

A    Number of detected defects, testing cost

B    Number of residual defects in the test object.

C    Percentage of completed tasks in the preparation of test environment; test cases prepared

D    Number of test cases run / not run; test cases passed / failed

Q11: Which of the following can be root cause of a bug in a software product?
(I) The project had incomplete procedures for configuration management.
(II) The time schedule to develop a certain component was cut.
(III) the specification was unclear
(IV) Use of the code standard was not followed up
(V) The testers were not certified

A    (I) and (II) are correct

B    (I) through (IV) are correct

C    (III) through (V) are correct

D    (I), (II) and (IV) are correct

Q12: The structure of an incident report is covered in the Standard for Software Test Documentation IEEE 829 and is called as:

A    Anomaly Report

B    Defect Report

C    Test Defect Report

D    Test Incident Report

Q13: Which of the following is NOT part of a high-level test plan?

A    Functions not to be tested.

B    Environmental requirements.

C    Analysis of Specifications.

D    Entry and Exit criteria

Q14: Which of the following helps in monitoring the Test Progress:
i. Percentage of Test Case Execution
ii. Percentage of work done in test environment preparation.
iii. Defect Information e.g. defect density, defects found and fixed
iv. The size of the testing Team and skills of the engineers

A    iv is correct and i,ii,iii are incorrect

B    i,ii,iii are correct and iv is incorrect

C    i,ii are correct and iii,iv are incorrect

D    i,iv are correct and ii , iii are incorrect

Q15: Which of the following could be a disadvantage of independent testing?

A    Developer and independent testing will overlap and waste resources.

B    Communication is limited between independent testers and developers.

C    Independent testers are too slow and delay the project schedule.

D    Developers can lose a sense of responsibility for quality.

Q16: In a risk-based approach, the risks identified may be used to:
i. Determine the test technique to be employed
ii. Determine the extent of testing to be carried out
iii. Prioritise testing in an attempt to find critical defects as early as possible.
iv. Determine the cost of the project

A    ii is True; i, iii, iv & v are False

B    i,ii,iii are true and iv is false

C    ii & iii are True; i, iv are False

D    ii, iii & iv are True; i is false

Q17: Bug life cycle

A    Open, Assigned, Fixed, Closed

B    Open, Fixed, Assigned, Closed

C    Assigned, Open, Closed, Fixed

D    Assigned, Open, Fixed, Closed

Q18: A project that is in the implementation phase is six weeks behind schedule.
The delivery date for the product is four months away. The project is not allowed to slip the delivery date or compromise on the quality standards established for this product. Which of the following actions would bring this project back on schedule?

A    Eliminate some of the requirements that have not yet been implemented.

B    Add more engineers to the project to make up for lost work.

C    Ask the current developers to work overtime until the lost work is recovered.

D    Hire more software quality assurance personnel.

Q19: A Test Plan Outline contains which of the following:
i. Test Items
ii. Test Scripts
iii. Test Deliverables
iv. Responsibilities

A    i,ii,iii are true and iv is false

B    i,iii,iv are true and ii is false

C    ii,iii are true and i and iv are false

D    i,ii are false and iii , iv are true

Q20: Which of the following is not a major task of Exit criteria?

A    Checking test logs against the exit criteria specified in test planning.

B    Logging the outcome of test execution.

C    Assessing if more tests are needed.

D    Writing a test summary report for stakeholders.

Q21: What is the KEY difference between preventative and reactive approaches to testing?

A    Preventative tests and reactive tests are designed as early as possible.

B    Preventative tests are designed early; reactive tests are designed after the software has been produced.

C    Preventative testing is always analytical; reactive testing is always heuristic.

D    Preventative tests are designed after the software has been produced; reactive tests are designed early in response to review comments.

Q22: What determines the level of risk?

A    The cost of dealing with an adverse event if it occurs.

B    The probability that an adverse event will occur.

C    The amount of testing planned before the release of a system.

D    The likelihood of an adverse event and the impact of the event.

Q23: Which of the following is MOST important in the selection of a test approach?

A    Availability of tools to support the proposed techniques.

B    The budget allowed for training in proposed techniques.

C    Available skills and experience in the proposed techniques.

D    The willingness of the test team to learn new techniques.

Q24: A defect arrival rate curve:

A    Shows the number of newly discovered defects per unit time

B    Shows the number of open defects per unit time.

C    Shows the cumulative total number of defects found up to this time.

D    Any of these, depending on the company.

Q25: Maintenance releases and technical assistance centers are examples of which of the following costs of quality?

A    External failure

B    Internal failure

C    Appraisal

D    Prevention

Q26: From a Testing perspective, what are the MAIN purposes of Configuration Management?

(i) Identifying the version of software under test.
(ii) Controlling the version of testware items.
(iii) Developing new testware items.
(iv) Tracking changes to test ware items.
(v) Analysing the need for new testware items.

A    ii, iv and v.

B    ii, iii and iv,

C    i, ii and iv.

D    i, iii and v.

Q27: Which of the following is a MAJOR task of test planning?

A    Scheduling test analysis and design tasks.

B    Initiating corrective actions.

C    Monitoring progress and test coverage.

D    Measuring and analysing results.

Q28: Based on the IEEE Standard for Software Test Documentation (IEEE Std 829 - 1998), which of the following sections are part of the test summary report?

a) Summary
b) Test incident report identifier
c) Test deliverables
d) Risks and contingencies
e) Variances
f) Approvals
g) Output specifications

A    a, e and f

B    a, c and d

C    a, b and f

D    a, d and e

Q29: Which is a potential product risk factor?

A    Failure of third party vendor

B    Training issues

C    Problems requirements definition

D    Poor software functionality

Q30: Which of the following would you NOT usually find on a software incident report?

A    The name and / or organisational position of the person raising the problem.

B    Version of the Software Under Test.

C    Suggestions as to how to fix the problem.

D    Actual and expected results.

Q31: In software testing what is the main purpose of exit criteria?

A    To enhance the security of the system

B    To prevent the endless loops in code.

C    To serve as an alternative or 'Plan-B'

D    To define when to stop testing

Q32: When should configuration management procedures be implemented?

A    During test planning.

B    During test analysis.

C    During test execution.

D    When evaluating exit criteria

Q33: Which of the following is a KEY test control task?

A    Initiating corrective actions

B    Determining the scope

C    Implementing the test policy

D    Scheduling test implementation

Q34: There are several risks of managing your project's schedule with a statistical reliability model. These include (choose one or more of the following):

A    Testers spend more energy early in the product trying to find bugs than preparing to do the rest of the project's work more efficiently

B    Managers might not realize that the testing effort is ineffective, late in the project, because they expect a low rate of bug finding, so the low rate achieved doesn't alarm them.

C    It can increase the end-of-project pressure on testers to not find bugs, or to not report bugs.

D    All of the above

Q35: Measurement dysfunction is a problem because:

A    Even though the numbers you look at appear better, to achieve these numbers, people are doing other aspects of their work much less well.

B    We don't know how to measure a variable (our measurement is dysfunctional) and so we don't know how to interpret the result

C    You are measuring the wrong thing and thus reaching the wrong conclusions

D    All of the above.

Q36: Poor software characteristics are

A    Only Project risks

B    Only Product risks

C    Project risks and Product risks

D    Project risks or Product risks

Q37: Which is not the project risks

A    Supplier issues

B    Organization factors

C    Technical issues

D    Error-prone software delivered

Q38: Which factors contribute to humans making mistakes that can lead to faulty software?

I. Setting aggressive schedule
II. Integrating complex systems
III. Allocating adequate resources
IV. Failing to control changes


A    I and II are true; III and IV are false

B    II and IV are true; I and III are false

C    I, II and IV are true; III is false

D    I, II and III are true; IV is false

Q39: Which sections are included as part of the test summary report?
W. Variances
X. Comprehensive assessment
Y. Evaluation
Z. Summary of activities

A    W, X and Y

B    W, X, Y and Z

C    W and X

D    W, X and Z

Q40: FPA is used to

A    To measure the functional requirements of the project

B    To measure the size of the functionality of an Information system

C    To measure the functional testing effort

D    To measure the functional flow

Q41: PDCA is known as

A    Plan, Do, Check, Act

B    Plan, Do, Correct, Act

C    Plan, Debug, Check, Act

D    Plan, Do, Check, Accept

Q42: A Project risk includes which of the following:

A    Organizational Factors

B    Poor Software characteristics

C    Error Prone software delivered.

D    Software that does not perform its intended functions

Q43: In a risk-based approach, the risks identified may be used to:
i. Determine the test technique to be employed
ii. Determine the extent of testing to be carried out
iii. Determine the release date
iv. Determine the project schedule


A    ii is True; i, iii, iv & v are False

B    i,ii,iii are true and iv is false

C    i & ii are True; iii, iv are False

D    ii, iii & iv are True; i is false

Q44: Incidents would not be raised against:

A    Requirements

B    Documentation

C    Test cases

D    Improvements suggested by users

Q45: Which of the following is a MAJOR task when evaluating the exit criteria?

A    Creating test suites and cases for efficient execution

B    Writing a test summary report for stakeholders

C    Handing the testware to the maintenance organization

D    Identifying any required infrastructure and tools

Q46: How much percentage of the life cycle costs of a software are spent on maintenance?

A    10%

B    30%

C    50%

D    70%

Q47: Which of the following is a valid objective of an incident report?


A    Prove that the tester is contributing to the quality of the system.

B    Provides test management ideas for test process improvement.

C    Gives a statistical way to determine which modules to redesign.

D    Provides developers a way to critique their individual work processes.

Q48: Structure is unknown for which type of development project

A    Traditional system development

B    Iterative development

C    System maintenance

D    Purchased/contracted software

Q49: ________indicates how important it is to fix the bug and when it should be fixed

A    Severity

B    Priority

C    All of the above

D    None of the above

Q50: Which of the following are MAJOR test implementation and execution tasks?
I. Repeating test activities
II. Creating test suites
III. Reporting discrepancies
IV. Logging the outcome
V. Analysing lessons learned


A    II, III and IV

B    I, III, IV and V

C    I, II, III and IV

D    III, IV and V

Q51: Which tasks are performed by a test leader versus a tester?

S. Writing a project test strategy
T. Selecting tools to support testing
U. Preparing and acquiring data
V. Scheduling tests

A    Test leader: S and V; Tester: T and U

B    Test leader: S, T and V; Tester: U

C    Test leader: S, U and V; Tester: T

D    Test leader: S; Tester: T, U and V

Q52: Which summarizes the testing activities associated with one or more test design specifications.

A    Test Summary report

B    Test Log

C    Test Incident Report

D    Test Script

Q53: What is the ratio of the number of failures relative to a category and a unit of measure?

A    Failure rate

B    Defect density

C    Failure mode

D    Fault tolerance

Q54: EULA stands for

A    End Usability License Agreement

B    End User License Agreement

C    End User License Arrangement

D    End User License Attachment

Q55: What test can be conducted for off - the - shelf software to get market feedback?

A    Beta testing

B    Usability testing

C    Alpha testing

D    COTS testing

Q56: How can software defects in future projects be prevented from reoccurring?


A    Creating documentation procedures and allocating resource contingencies

B    Asking programmers to perform a thorough and independent testing

C    Combining levels of testing and mandating inspections of all document

D    Documenting lessons learned and determining the root cause of problems

Q57: As a test leader you are collecting measures about defects. You recognize that after the first test cycle – covering all requirements - subsystem C has a defect density that is 150% higher than the average. Subsystem A on the other hand has a defect density that is 60% lower than the average. What conclusions for the next test cycle could you draw from this fact?

A    It is probable that subsystem C has still more hidden defects. Therefore we need to test subsystem C in more detail

B    Because we have already found many defects in subsystem C, we should concentrate testing resources on Subsystem A.

C    Observed defect density does not allow any conclusions about the amount of additional testing.

D    We should try to equalize the amount of testing over all modules to ensure that we test all subsystems evenly.

Q58: Which approaches can help increase the quality of software?

I. Incorporating rigorous testing
II. Preventing change requests
III. Establishing defects metrics
IV. Allocating schedule contingencies


A    I and II are true; III and IV are false

B    II and IV are true; I and II are false

C    I and IV are true; II and III are false

D    I and III are true; II and IV are false

Q59: Which documents specify features to - be tested, approach, and pass / fail criteria?


A    Test plan and test design specification

B    Test plan and test case specification

C    Test procedure specification and test design specification

D    Test case specification and test procedure specification

Q60: Defect Management process does not include

A    Defect prevention

B    Deliverable base-lining

C    Management reporting

D    None of the above

Q61: During an early period of test execution, a defect is located, resolved and confirmed as resolved by re-testing, but is seen again later during subsequent test execution. Which of the following is a testing related aspect of configuration management that is most likely to have broken down?

A    Traceability

B    Confirmation testing

C    Configuration control

D    Test documentation management

Q62: A product risk analysis meeting is held during the project planning period. Which of the following determines the level of risk?

A    Difficulty of fixing related problems in code

B    The harm that might result to the user

C    The price for which the software is sold

D    The technical staff in the meeting

Q63: Which tasks would USUALLY be performed by a test leader and which by the tester?
(a) Adapt planning based on test results.
(b) Create test specifications.
(c) Plan tests.
(d) Write or review a test strategy

A    c and d by the test leader; a and b by the tester

B    a and b by the test leader; c and d by the tester.

C    a and d by the test leader; b and c by the tester

D    a, c and d by the test leader; b by the tester.

Q64: Under what circumstances would you plan to perform maintenance testing?
(a) As part of a migration of an application from one platform to another.
(b) As part of a planned enhancement release.
(c) When the test scripts need to be updated.
(d) For data migration associated with the retirement of a system

A    a, b and c

B    b, c and d

C    a, b and d

D    a, c and d

Q65: Which of the following best describes the task partition between test manager
and tester?

A    The test manager plans testing activities and chooses the standards to be followed, while the tester chooses the tools and controls to be used.

B    The test manager plans, organizes and controls the testing activities, while the tester specifies, automates and executes tests.

C    The test manager plans, monitors and controls the testing activities, while the tester designs tests.

D    The test manager plans and organizes the testing and specifies the test cases, while the tester prioritizes and executes the tests.

Q66: Which of the following can be categorized as product risks?

A    Low quality of requirements, design, code and tests.

B    Political problems and delays in especially complex areas in the product.

C    Error-prone areas, potential harm to the user, poor product characteristics.

D    Problems in defining the right requirements, potential failure areas in the software or system.

Q67: Which of the following are typical test exit criteria?

A    Thoroughness measures, reliability measures, test cost, schedule, state of defect correction and residual risks.

B    Thoroughness measures, reliability measures, degree of tester independence and product completeness.

C    Thoroughness measures, reliability measures, test cost, time to market and product completeness, availability of testable code.

D    Time to market, residual defects, tester qualification, degree of tester independence, thoroughness measures and test cost.

Q68: What is the benefit of independent testing?

A    More work gets done because testers do not disturb the developers all the time.

B    Independent testers tend to be unbiased and find different defects than the developers.

C    Independent testers do not need extra education and training.

D    Independent testers reduce the bottleneck in the incident management process.

Q69: Which of the following would be categorized as project risks?

A    Skill and staff shortages.

B    Poor software characteristics.

C    Failure-prone software delivered.

D    Possible reliability defect (bug).

Q70: As a test manager, you are asked for a test summary report. Concerning test activities and according to IEEE 829 Standard, what should you consider in your report?

A    The number of test cases using Black Box techniques.

B    A summary of the major testing activities, events and its status in
respect of meeting goals.

C    Overall evaluation of each development work item.

D    Training taken by members of the test team to support the test effort.

Q71: You are a tester in a safety-critical software development project. During
execution of a test, you find out that one of your expected results was not
achieved. You write an incident report about it. What do you consider to be
the most important information to include according to the IEEE Std. 829?

A    Impact, incident description, date and time, your name.

B    Unique id for the report, special requirements needed.

C    Transmitted items, your name and you’re feeling about the defect source.

D    Incident description, environment, expected results.

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