ISTQB certification exam questions for chapter Fundamentals of testing

Questions
Q1: Though activities in the test process may overlap or occur concurrently, identify the logical sequential process.
(iii) Test planning
(i) Test analysis
(v) Test design
(ii) Test implementation
(iv) Test execution

A    i - iii - v - ii - iv

B    v – iii – ii – iv - i

C    iii - i - v - ii - iv

D    v – ii – iii – i – iv

Q2: What is the USUAL sequence for performing the following activities during the Test Process?
a. Analyse the test basis documents.
b. Define the expected results.
c. Create the test execution schedule.
d. Establish the traceability of the test conditions

A    d, a, c, b

B    a, d, b, c

C    a, b, c, d

D    a, b, d, c

F   

Q3: A deviation from the specified or expected behaviour that is visible to end-users is called:

A    An error

B    A fault

C    A failure

D    A defect

Q4: Which of the following is false?

A    In a system, two different failures may have different severities.

B    A system is necessarily more reliable after debugging for the removal of a fault.

C    A fault need not affect the reliability of a system.

D    Undetected errors may lead to faults and eventually to incorrect behaviour.

Q5: Test data planning essentially includes

A    Network

B    Operational Model

C    Boundary value analysis

D    Test Procedure Planning

Q6: Which statement is MOST consistent with ISTQB testing principles?

A    Component testing always uses black-box techniques

B    Finding many defects may reduce confidence in software quality

C    Fewer detected defects always indicate better testing

D    Executing more tests always finds more defects

Q7: Which of the following is not among the main groups of activities in a test process?

A    Test Planning

B    Test monitoring and control

C    Requirement Analysis

D    Test completion

Q8: Evaluating testability of the requirements and system are a part of which activity:-

A    Test Planning

B    Test monitoring and control

C    Test Analysis

D    Test implementation

Q9: Which of the following could be a reason for a failure
1) Testing fault
2) Software fault
3) Design fault
4) Environment Fault
5) Documentation Fault

A    2 is a valid reason; 1,3,4 & 5 are not

B    1,2,3,4 are valid reasons; 5 is not

C    1,2,3 are valid reasons; 4 & 5 are not

D    All of them are valid reasons for failure.

Q10: Handover of Testware is a part of which activity

A    Test Analysis

B    Test Planning

C    Test Completion

D    Test execution

Q11: A set of test cases grouped into manageable and executable units is called:

A    Test Harness

B    Test Suite

C    Test Cycle

D    Test Driver

Q12: Which of the following statements describes a key principle of software testing?

A    Automated tests allow better statements of confidence about the quality of software products.

B    For a software system, it is normally impossible to test all the input and output combinations.

C    Exhaustive software testing is, with enough effort and tool support, feasible for all software.

D    The purpose of software testing is demonstrating the absence of defects in software products.

Q13: Which of the following is a KEY test closure task?

A    Ensuring proper environment setup

B    Writing a test summary report

C    Assessing the need for additional tests

D    Finalising and archiving testware.

Q14: Which defects are OFTEN much cheaper to remove?

A    Usability defects found by customers

B    Defects in infrequently used functionality

C    Defects that were detected early

D    Minor defects that were found by users

Q15: Which activity in the test process creates test suites for efficient test execution?

A    Test Implementation

B    Test Planning

C    Test Analysis

D    Test Execution

Q16: Which of the problems below BEST characterise a result of software failure?

A    Damaged reputation

B    Lack of methodology

C    Inadequate training

D    Regulatory compliance

Q17: What is the purpose of exit criteria?

A    To define when a test level is complete.

B    To determine when a test has completed.

C    To identify when a software system should be retired.

D    To determine whether a test has passed.

Q18: Which activities form part of test planning?

i) Developing test cases.
ii) Defining the overall approach to testing.
iii) Assigning resources.
iv) Building the test environment
v) Writing test conditions.

A    i, ii &iv are true, iii & v are false.

B    ii & iii are true, i, iv& v are false.

C    iv & v are true, i, ii & iii are false.

D    i, ii & iii are true iv& v are false.

Q19: Which testing principle is BEST represented when test design is performed by people independent of the developers?

A    Exploratory testing

B    Independent testing

C    Integration testing

D    Interoperability testing

Q20: Which of the following is a benefit of test independence?

A    It does not require familiarity with the code.

B    It is cheaper than using developers to test their own code.

C    It avoids author bias in defining effective tests.

D    Testers are better at finding defects than developers

Q21: Which statement is MOST consistent with ISTQB testing principles?

A    Testing can prove that software is defect-free

B    Exhaustive testing is possible for most systems

C    Testing can show the presence of defects, not their absence

D    Complete testing means finding every defect

Q22: Which is not the testing objectives

A    Finding defects

B    Gaining confidence about the level of quality and providing information

C    Preventing defects.

D    Debugging defects

Q23: Which of the following is a KEY task of a tester?

A    Reviewing tests developed by others

B    Writing a test strategy for the project

C    Deciding what should be automated

D    Writing test summary reports

Q24: Which of the following is NOT one of the seven testing principles?

A    Early testing

B    Defect clustering

C    Pesticide paradox

D    Exhaustive testing

Q25: What consists of a set of input values, execution preconditions and expected results?

A    Test script

B    Test procedure specification

C    Test case

D    Test data

Q26: The ___________ testing will be performed by the people at clients own locations

A    Alpha testing

B    Field testing

C    Performance testing

D    System testing

Q27: Which of the following is among the MAIN group of test activities and tasks in a test process?

A    Debugging defects

B    Documenting root-causes

C    Test environment setup

D    Test monitoring and control

Q28: Which of the following is not an activity in the test process ?

A    Test Planning

B    Test monitoring and control

C    Test Analysis and Test design

D    None

Q29: Which type of testing evaluates system performance and behaviour under varying workloads?

A    Load Testing

B    Integration Testing

C    System Testing

D    Usability Testing

Q30: Reviewing the test basis is part of which test activity?

A    Test Analysis

B    Test Implementation

C    Test completion

D    Evaluating exit criteria and reporting

Q31: Which of the following is not a part of the Test Implementation or Test Execution activity

A    Creating test suites from the test cases

B    Executing test cases either manually or by using test execution tools

C    Comparing actual results

D    Designing the Tests

Q32: Designing the test environment set-up and identifying any required infrastructure and tools are a part of which activity

A    Test Implementation

B    Test Analysis

C    Test Planning

D    Test Design

Q33: Reporting Discrepancies as incidents is a part of which activity:-

A    Test Analysis

B    Test Implementation

C    Test Execution

D    Evaluating exit criteria and reporting

Q34: Test Implementation and Test execution has which of the following major tasks?
i. Developing and prioritising test cases, creating test data, writing test procedures and optionally preparing the test harnesses and writing automated test scripts.
ii. Creating the test suite from the test cases for efficient test execution.
iii. Verifying that the test environment has been set up correctly.
iv. Determining the exit criteria.


A    i, ii, iii are true and iv is false

B    i, iv are true and ii is false

C    i, ii are true and iii, iv are false

D    ii, iii, iv are true and i is false

Q35: Exhaustive Testing is

A    Is impractical but possible

B    Is practically possible

C    Is impractical and impossible

D    Is always possible

Q36: What is the process of analysing and removing causes of failures in software?

A    Validation

B    Testing

C    Debugging

D    Verification

Q37: Majority of system errors occur in the _________ phase

A    Requirements Phase

B    Design Phase

C    Development Phase

D    Testing Phase

Q38: When to stop Testing?

A    Stop when scheduled time for testing expires

B    Stop if 75% of the pre-defined number of errors is detected.

C    Stop when all the test cases execute with detecting few errors.

D    None above

Q39: Which of the following is an objective of software testing?

A    Determine the productivity of programmers

B    Eliminate the need for future program maintenance

C    Eliminate every error prior to release

D    Uncover software defects

Q40: Failure is _________

A    Incorrect program behaviour due to a fault in the program

B    Bug found before product Release

C    Bug found after product Release

D    Bug found during Design phase

Q41: One Key reason why developers have difficulty testing their own work is:

A    Lack of technical documentation

B    Lack of test tools in the market for developers

C    Lack of training

D    Lack of Objectivity

Q42: Which of the following BEST describes software quality?

A    Quality means work is completed

B    Zero defects

C    Conformance to requirements

D    Working exactly as designed

Q43: Independent Verification and Validation (IV&V) is performed by:

A    Developers who created the software

B    Test engineers independent from development activities

C    Project management only

D    An organization independent of the development team

Q44: Defects are found most cost-effectively when testing activities start:

A    Late during test execution

B    Early in the SDLC

C    After exit criteria evaluation

D    After release

Q45: During which test activity is the test basis reviewed?

A    Evaluating exit criteria

B    Test implementation

C    Test analysis

D    Test planning

Q46: Which of the following statements BEST describes one of the seven key
principles of software testing?

A    Automated tests are better than manual tests for avoiding the Exhaustive Testing.

B    Exhaustive testing is, with sufficient effort and tool support, feasible for all software.

C    It is normally impossible to test all input/output combinations for a software system.

D    The purpose of testing is to demonstrate the absence of defects.

Q47: Which of the following statements is the MOST valid goal for a test team?

A    Determine whether enough component testing was executed.

B    Cause as many failures as possible so that faults can be identified and
corrected.

C    Prove that all faults are identified.

D    Prove that any remaining faults will not cause any failures.

Q48: Which of these tasks would you expect to perform during Test Analysis?

A    Setting test objectives

B    Reviewing the test basis

C    Creating test suites

D    Analyzing lessons learned

Q49: Below is a list of problems that can be observed during testing or operation.
Which is MOST likely a failure?

A    The product crashed when the user selected an option in a dialogue box.

B    One source code file included in the build was the wrong version.

C    The computation algorithm used the wrong input variables.

D    The developer misinterpreted the requirement for the algorithm.

Q50: Which of the following statements are TRUE?

A. Software testing may be required to meet legal or contractual requirements.

B. Software testing is mainly needed to improve the quality of the developer’s work.

C. Rigorous testing and fixing of defects found can help reduce the risk of problems occurring in an operational environment.

D. Rigorous testing is sometimes used to prove that all failures have been found.

A    B and C are true; A and D are false.

B    A and D are true; B and C are false.

C    A and C are true, B and D are false.

D    C and D are true, A and B are false.

Q51: Which of the following statements BEST describes the difference between
testing and debugging?

A    Testing pinpoints (identifies the source of) the defects. Debugging
analyzes the faults and proposes prevention activities.

B    Dynamic testing shows failures caused by defects. Debugging finds,
analyzes, and removes the causes of failures in the software.

C    Testing removes faults. Debugging identifies the causes of failures.

D    Dynamic testing prevents causes of failures. Debugging removes the
failures.

Q52: Which of the following is the task of a Tester?
i. Interaction with the Test Tool Vendor to identify best ways to leverage test tool on the project.
ii. Prepare and acquire Test Data
iii. Implement Tests on all test levels, execute and log the tests.
iv. Create the Test Specifications

A    i, ii, iii is true and iv is false

B    ii,iii,iv is true and i is false

C    i is true and ii,iii,iv are false

D    iii and iv is correct and i and ii are incorrect

Q53: Which testware item describes the sequence of actions required to execute test cases?

A    Test Case

B    Test Data

C    Test Procedure

D    Test Condition

Q54: Which testware item defines the expected results of a test?

A    Test Case

B    Test Procedure

C    Test Data

D    Test Results

Q55: Which benefits can be achieved by establishing traceability between the test basis and testware?

A    Configuration management and test data generation

B    Test case creation and change control

C    Test conditions and test procedures

D    Impact analysis and requirements coverage

Q56: A _____ is the step-by-step method followed to ensure that standards are met

A    SDLC

B    Project Plan

C    Policy

D    Procedure

Q57: Which of the following could be a disadvantage of independent testing?

A    Developer and independent testing will overlap and waste resources.

B    Communication is limited between independent testers and developers.

C    Independent testers are too slow and delay the project schedule.

D    Developers can lose a sense of responsibility for quality.

Q58: Which of the following are MAJOR test implementation and execution tasks?

I. Re-executing tests after fixes or changes
II. Creating test suites
III. Reporting discrepancies
IV. Logging the outcome
V. Analysing lessons learned

A    II, III and IV

B    I, III, IV and V

C    I, II, III and IV

D    III, IV and V

Q59: What is the benefit of independent testing?

A    More work gets done because testers do not disturb the developers all the time.

B    Independent testers tend to be unbiased and find different defects than the developers.

C    Independent testers do not need extra education and training.

D    Independent testers reduce the bottleneck in the incident management process.

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