| Sr.no | Questions |
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| 1 | Q1: Though activities in the test process may overlap or occur concurrently, identify the logical sequential process. (iii) Test planning (i) Test analysis (v) Test design (ii) Test implementation (iv) Test execution A i - iii - v - ii - iv B v – iii – ii – iv - i C iii - i - v - ii - iv D v – ii – iii – i – iv Click here for answer Correct Answer : c Explanation: A test process usually consists of the main groups of activities described below. These activities may appear to follow a logical sequence; however, they are often implemented iteratively or in parallel and are tailored according to the system and the project. Test planning consists of defining the test objectives and then selecting an approach that best achieves the objectives within the constraints imposed by the overall context. Test monitoring and control involves the checking of all test activities and the comparison of actual progress against the plan. Test analysis includes analyzing the test basis to identify testable features and to define and prioritize associated test conditions, together with the related risks and risk levels. Test design includes elaborating the test conditions into test cases and other testware. Test implementation involves creating or acquiring the testware necessary for test execution (e.g., test data). Test execution includes running the tests in accordance with the test execution schedule. Test completion activities usually occur at project milestones (e.g., release, end of iteration, test level completion) for any unresolved defects, change requests or product backlog items created. A test completion report is created and communicated to the stakeholders. |
| 2 | Q2: What is the USUAL sequence for performing the following activities during the Test Process? a. Analyse the test basis documents. b. Define the expected results. c. Create the test execution schedule. d. Establish the traceability of the test conditions A d, a, c, b B a, d, b, c C a, b, c, d D a, b, d, c F Click here for answer Correct Answer : b Explanation: From the given four options a. Analyse the test basis documents. This is done during Test analysis. b. Define the expected results. This is done during Test design. c. Create the test execution schedule. This is done during Test implementation. d. Establish the traceability of the test conditions. This is done during Test analysis The usual sequence of test process is Test planning, Test monitoring and control, Test analysis, Test design, Test implementation, Test execution, Test completion activities. So, the USUAL sequence for performing the given activities during the Fundamental Test Process is a, d, b, c. |
| 3 | Q3: A deviation from the specified or expected behaviour that is visible to end-users is called: A An error B A fault C A failure D A defect Click here for answer Correct Answer : c Explanation: Error (mistake) is a human action that produces an incorrect result. Fault (bug, defect) is a flaw in a component or system that can cause the component or system to fail to perform it's required function. Failure is deviation of the component or system from its expected delivery, service or result. |
| 4 | Q4: Which of the following is false? A In a system, two different failures may have different severities. B A system is necessarily more reliable after debugging for the removal of a fault. C A fault need not affect the reliability of a system. D Undetected errors may lead to faults and eventually to incorrect behaviour. Click here for answer Correct Answer : b Explanation: The correct answer is option B. A system is necessarily more reliable after debugging for the removal of a fault. This statement is false because removing a fault during debugging does not guarantee that the system becomes more reliable. While fixing a defect may improve the software, it can also introduce new defects, create side effects, or leave reliability unchanged. Therefore, reliability is not necessarily improved after debugging. Why other options are correct: A. In a system, two different failures may have different severities. This is true because different failures can have different impacts. For example, a spelling mistake may have low severity, while a payment failure may have high severity. C. A fault need not affect the reliability of a system. This is true because a fault may exist in the software but may never be executed and therefore may not cause any failure. D. Undetected errors may lead to faults and eventually to incorrect behaviour. This is true and follows the ISTQB concept: Error → Fault (Defect) → Failure. Human mistakes can introduce faults, which may later result in incorrect system behaviour. Hence, Option B is the false statement. |
| 5 | Q5: Test data planning essentially includes A Network B Operational Model C Boundary value analysis D Test Procedure Planning Click here for answer Correct Answer : d |
| 6 | Q6: Which statement is MOST consistent with ISTQB testing principles? A Component testing always uses black-box techniques B Finding many defects may reduce confidence in software quality C Fewer detected defects always indicate better testing D Executing more tests always finds more defects Click here for answer Correct Answer : b Explanation: The correct answer is B. Finding many defects during testing may reduce confidence in software quality, because a large number of defects may indicate that more defects are still present. A is incorrect because component testing is not always black-box and system testing is not always white-box; different techniques can be used at different test levels. C is incorrect because finding fewer defects does not necessarily mean testing was better; important defects may have been missed. D is incorrect because running more tests does not guarantee finding more defects, especially if similar tests are repeatedly executed. |
| 7 | Q7: Which of the following is not among the main groups of activities in a test process? A Test Planning B Test monitoring and control C Requirement Analysis D Test completion Click here for answer Correct Answer : c Explanation: A test process usually consists of the main groups of activities described below. (1) Test planning (2) Test monitoring and control (3) Test analysis (4) Test design (5) Test implementation (6) Test execution (7) Test completion |
| 8 | Q8: Evaluating testability of the requirements and system are a part of which activity:- A Test Planning B Test monitoring and control C Test Analysis D Test implementation Click here for answer Correct Answer : c Explanation: Test Analysis has the following major tasks - Analyzing the test basis to identify testable features - Define and prioritize associated test conditions - Evaluate testability of the requirements and system |
| 9 | Q9: Which of the following could be a reason for a failure 1) Testing fault 2) Software fault 3) Design fault 4) Environment Fault 5) Documentation Fault A 2 is a valid reason; 1,3,4 & 5 are not B 1,2,3,4 are valid reasons; 5 is not C 1,2,3 are valid reasons; 4 & 5 are not D All of them are valid reasons for failure. Click here for answer Correct Answer : d Explanation: Human beings make errors (mistakes), which produce defects (faults, bugs), which in turn may result in failures. Defects can be found in documentation, such as a requirements specification or a test script, in source code, or in a supporting artifact such as a build file. Defects in artifacts produced earlier in the SDLC, if undetected, often lead to defective artifacts later in the lifecycle. If a defect in code is executed, the system may fail to do what it should do, or do something it shouldn’t, causing a failure. Failures can also be caused by environmental conditions. |
| 10 | Q10: Handover of Testware is a part of which activity A Test Analysis B Test Planning C Test Completion D Test execution Click here for answer Correct Answer : c Explanation: Test Completion Activity include the following major tasks - Check which planned deliverables we actually delivered and ensure all incident reports have been resolved. - Finalize and archive testware. - Hand over of testware. - Evaluate how the testing went and analyze lessons learned. - Create test completion report and communicate to the stakeholders. |
| 11 | Q11: A set of test cases grouped into manageable and executable units is called: A Test Harness B Test Suite C Test Cycle D Test Driver Click here for answer Correct Answer : b Explanation: The correct answer is B. Test Suite because a test suite is a collection of test cases grouped together for execution and management. A. Test Harness is incorrect because it refers to supporting tools, drivers, stubs, and environment used for testing. C. Test Cycle is incorrect because it represents a phase or iteration of testing, not a group of test cases. D. Test Driver is incorrect because it is software used to invoke or control components during testing. |
| 12 | Q12: Which of the following statements describes a key principle of software testing? A Automated tests allow better statements of confidence about the quality of software products. B For a software system, it is normally impossible to test all the input and output combinations. C Exhaustive software testing is, with enough effort and tool support, feasible for all software. D The purpose of software testing is demonstrating the absence of defects in software products. Click here for answer Correct Answer : b Explanation: The statement in option (b) describes a key principle of software testing. The Testing principle described is: Exhaustive testing is impossible. Testing everything is not feasible except in trivial cases. Rather than attempting to test exhaustively, test techniques, test case prioritization, and risk-based testing, should be used to focus test efforts. |
| 13 | Q13: Which of the following is a KEY test closure task? A Ensuring proper environment setup B Writing a test summary report C Assessing the need for additional tests D Finalising and archiving testware. Click here for answer Correct Answer : d Explanation: Test Completion Activity include the following major tasks - Check which planned deliverables we actually delivered and ensure all incident reports have been resolved. - Finalize and archive testware. - Hand over of testware. - Evaluate how the testing went and analyze lessons learned. - Create test completion report and communicate to the stakeholders. |
| 14 | Q14: Which defects are OFTEN much cheaper to remove? A Usability defects found by customers B Defects in infrequently used functionality C Defects that were detected early D Minor defects that were found by users Click here for answer Correct Answer : c Explanation: As per the Testing Principles Early testing saves time and money. Defects that are removed early in the process will not cause subsequent defects in derived work products. The cost of quality will be reduced since fewer failures will occur later in the SDLC. |
| 15 | Q15: Which activity in the test process creates test suites for efficient test execution? A Test Implementation B Test Planning C Test Analysis D Test Execution Click here for answer Correct Answer : a Explanation: Test implementation includes - Creating or acquiring the testware required for test execution. - Test cases are organized into test procedures and are assembled into test suites. - Manual and automated test scripts are created. -Test procedures are prioritized and arranged within a test execution schedule for efficient test execution. - The test environment is built and verified. |
| 16 | Q16: Which of the problems below BEST characterise a result of software failure? A Damaged reputation B Lack of methodology C Inadequate training D Regulatory compliance Click here for answer Correct Answer : a Explanation: Software that does not work correctly can lead to many problems, including loss of money, time or business reputation, and, in extreme cases, even injury or death. |
| 17 | Q17: What is the purpose of exit criteria? A To define when a test level is complete. B To determine when a test has completed. C To identify when a software system should be retired. D To determine whether a test has passed. Click here for answer Correct Answer : a Explanation: Exit criteria define when a test level is complete. Exit criteria define what must be achieved in order to declare an activity completed. Entry criteria and exit criteria should be defined for each test level. |
| 18 | Q18: Which activities form part of test planning? i) Developing test cases. ii) Defining the overall approach to testing. iii) Assigning resources. iv) Building the test environment v) Writing test conditions. A i, ii &iv are true, iii & v are false. B ii & iii are true, i, iv& v are false. C iv & v are true, i, ii & iii are false. D i, ii & iii are true iv& v are false. Click here for answer Correct Answer : b |
| 19 | Q19: Which testing principle is BEST represented when test design is performed by people independent of the developers? A Exploratory testing B Independent testing C Integration testing D Interoperability testing Click here for answer Correct Answer : b Explanation: The correct answer is B. Independent testing because ISTQB states that testing performed by people independent from the creators of the software can improve effectiveness and help identify defects that developers may overlook. A. Exploratory testing is incorrect because it is a testing approach where learning, test design, and execution occur simultaneously. C. Integration testing is incorrect because it focuses on interactions between components or systems. D. Interoperability testing is incorrect because it verifies whether systems can work together correctly. |
| 20 | Q20: Which of the following is a benefit of test independence? A It does not require familiarity with the code. B It is cheaper than using developers to test their own code. C It avoids author bias in defining effective tests. D Testers are better at finding defects than developers Click here for answer Correct Answer : c Explanation: The correct answer is C. It avoids author bias in defining effective tests because independent testers may identify defects and risks that the original developers or authors could overlook. A. It does not require familiarity with the code is incorrect because independent testers may still need knowledge of the system or code depending on the testing level. B. It is cheaper than using developers to test their own code is incorrect because independent testing often requires additional resources and may increase cost. D. Testers are better at finding defects than developers is incorrect because ISTQB does not state that testers are always better; independence mainly reduces bias. |
| 21 | Q21: Which statement is MOST consistent with ISTQB testing principles? A Testing can prove that software is defect-free B Exhaustive testing is possible for most systems C Testing can show the presence of defects, not their absence D Complete testing means finding every defect Click here for answer Correct Answer : c Explanation: The correct answer is C because ISTQB states that testing can demonstrate the presence of defects but cannot prove their absence. A is incorrect because testing cannot prove software is defect-free. B is incorrect because exhaustive testing is generally impossible. D is incorrect because complete defect detection cannot be guaranteed. |
| 22 | Q22: Which is not the testing objectives A Finding defects B Gaining confidence about the level of quality and providing information C Preventing defects. D Debugging defects Click here for answer Correct Answer : d Explanation: Debugging defects is not a testing objective. Debugging is concerned with finding causes of failure, analyzing these causes, and fixing the causes of failures. |
| 23 | Q23: Which of the following is a KEY task of a tester? A Reviewing tests developed by others B Writing a test strategy for the project C Deciding what should be automated D Writing test summary reports Click here for answer Correct Answer : a Explanation: Out of the given tasks, reviewing tests developed by others is a key task of a tester. The other three tasks mentioned are generally carried out by Test leads or Test Managers. |
| 24 | Q24: Which of the following is NOT one of the seven testing principles? A Early testing B Defect clustering C Pesticide paradox D Exhaustive testing Click here for answer Correct Answer : d Explanation: There are seven principles of testing. They are as follows: (1) Testing shows the presence of defects: Testing can show the defects are present, but cannot prove that there are no defects. Even after testing the application or product thoroughly we cannot say that the product is 100% defect free. Testing always reduces the number of undiscovered defects remaining in the software but even if no defects are found, it is not a proof of correctness. (2) Exhaustive testing is impossible: Testing everything including all combinations of inputs and preconditions is not possible. So, instead of doing the exhaustive testing we can use risks and priorities to focus testing efforts. (3) Early testing: In the SDLC testing activities should start as early as possible and should be focused on defined objectives. (4) Defect clustering: A small number of modules contains most of the defects discovered during pre-release testing or shows the most operational failures. (5) Pesticide paradox: If the same kinds of tests are repeated, again and again, eventually the same set of test cases will no longer be able to find any new bugs. To overcome this “Pesticide Paradox”, it is really very important to review the test cases regularly and new and different tests need to be written to exercise different parts of the software or system to potentially find more defects. (6) Testing is context dependent: Testing is basically context dependent. Different kinds of software applications are tested differently. For example, a gaming website is tested differently from an e-commerce website. (7) Absence – of – errors fallacy: If the system built is unusable and does not fulfill the user’s needs and expectations then finding and fixing defects does not help. Note: 'Exhaustive testing is impossible' is a testing principle. One of the given options is 'Exhaustive testing', which is not a testing principle. |
| 25 | Q25: What consists of a set of input values, execution preconditions and expected results? A Test script B Test procedure specification C Test case D Test data Click here for answer Correct Answer : c Explanation: The correct answer is C. Test Case because a test case contains input values, execution conditions, expected results, and other information required to verify a test objective. A. Test Script is incorrect because it contains instructions for automated execution, not the complete test definition. B. Test Procedure Specification is incorrect because it describes the sequence of actions for executing tests. D. Test Data is incorrect because it only contains data used during execution and not expected results or conditions. |
| 26 | Q26: The ___________ testing will be performed by the people at clients own locations A Alpha testing B Field testing C Performance testing D System testing Click here for answer Correct Answer : b Explanation: Field testing is testing and evaluating an application in real-world conditions outside the development environment. Field testing is done by the people at client's own locations. |
| 27 | Q27: Which of the following is among the MAIN group of test activities and tasks in a test process? A Debugging defects B Documenting root-causes C Test environment setup D Test monitoring and control Click here for answer Correct Answer : d Explanation: A test process usually consists of the main groups of activities mentioned below 1. Test planning 2. Test monitoring and control 3. Test analysis 4. Test design 5. Test implementation 6. Test execution 7. Test completion |
| 28 | Q28: Which of the following is not an activity in the test process ? A Test Planning B Test monitoring and control C Test Analysis and Test design D None Click here for answer Correct Answer : d Explanation: The correct answer is D. None of the above because all the listed activities are part of the ISTQB test process. A. Test Planning defines objectives, scope, approach, resources, and schedule. B. Test Monitoring and Control tracks progress and takes corrective actions when needed. C. Test Analysis and Test Design involve analyzing the test basis and designing test cases. Since all three are valid test activities, none of them is incorrect. |
| 29 | Q29: Which type of testing evaluates system performance and behaviour under varying workloads? A Load Testing B Integration Testing C System Testing D Usability Testing Click here for answer Correct Answer : a Explanation: The correct answer is A. Load Testing because load testing checks how the system performs under expected or varying workloads. B. Integration Testing is incorrect because it verifies interactions between components or systems. C. System Testing is incorrect because it tests the complete integrated system and is a test level, not a workload-based test type. D. Usability Testing is incorrect because it evaluates ease of use and user interaction. |
| 30 | Q30: Reviewing the test basis is part of which test activity? A Test Analysis B Test Implementation C Test completion D Evaluating exit criteria and reporting Click here for answer Correct Answer : a Explanation: The correct answer is A. Test Analysis because during test analysis, the test basis (requirements, specifications, user stories, etc.) is reviewed to identify test conditions and evaluate testability. B. Test Implementation is incorrect because it involves preparing test procedures, test data, and test environments. C. Test Completion is incorrect because it includes closing activities and finalizing test work. D. Evaluating exit criteria and reporting is incorrect because it belongs to test monitoring and control, not test analysis. |
| 31 | Q31: Which of the following is not a part of the Test Implementation or Test Execution activity A Creating test suites from the test cases B Executing test cases either manually or by using test execution tools C Comparing actual results D Designing the Tests Click here for answer Correct Answer : d Explanation: The correct answer is D. Designing tests because test design belongs to the Test Design activity, not Test Implementation or Test Execution. A. Creating test suites from test cases is part of Test Implementation, where test cases are organized for execution. B. Executing test cases manually or using tools is part of Test Execution. C. Comparing actual results with expected results is also part of Test Execution to determine pass or fail status. |
| 32 | Q32: Designing the test environment set-up and identifying any required infrastructure and tools are a part of which activity A Test Implementation B Test Analysis C Test Planning D Test Design Click here for answer Correct Answer : d Explanation: Designing the test environment set-up and identifying any required infrastructure and tools are a part of Test Design activity |
| 33 | Q33: Reporting Discrepancies as incidents is a part of which activity:- A Test Analysis B Test Implementation C Test Execution D Evaluating exit criteria and reporting Click here for answer Correct Answer : c Explanation: The correct answer is C. Test Execution because during execution, actual results are compared with expected results and any discrepancies are recorded and reported as incidents or defects. A. Test Analysis is incorrect because it focuses on reviewing the test basis and identifying test conditions. B. Test Implementation is incorrect because it involves preparing test cases, test data, and test environments. D. Evaluating exit criteria and reporting is incorrect because it belongs to monitoring and completion activities, not defect reporting during execution. |
| 34 | Q34: Test Implementation and Test execution has which of the following major tasks? i. Developing and prioritising test cases, creating test data, writing test procedures and optionally preparing the test harnesses and writing automated test scripts. ii. Creating the test suite from the test cases for efficient test execution. iii. Verifying that the test environment has been set up correctly. iv. Determining the exit criteria. A i, ii, iii are true and iv is false B i, iv are true and ii is false C i, ii are true and iii, iv are false D ii, iii, iv are true and i is false Click here for answer Correct Answer : a Explanation: The correct answer is A. i, ii, iii are true and iv is false because activities i–iii belong to Test Implementation, while determining exit criteria is done during Test Planning. i is correct because test implementation includes preparing test cases, test data, procedures, and automation support. ii is correct because test suites are created for organized execution. iii is correct because the test environment must be verified before execution. iv is incorrect because exit criteria are established during planning activities. |
| 35 | Q35: Exhaustive Testing is A Is impractical but possible B Is practically possible C Is impractical and impossible D Is always possible Click here for answer Correct Answer : c Explanation: According to one of the seven testing principles. Exhaustive testing is impossible. Testing everything is not feasible except in trivial cases. Rather than attempting to test exhaustively, test techniques, test case prioritization, and risk-based testing, should be used to focus test efforts. |
| 36 | Q36: What is the process of analysing and removing causes of failures in software? A Validation B Testing C Debugging D Verification Click here for answer Correct Answer : c Explanation: When dynamic testing triggers a failure, debugging is concerned with finding causes of this failure (defects), analyzing these causes, and eliminating them. The typical debugging process in this case involves: • Reproduction of a failure • Diagnosis (finding the root cause) • Fixing the cause Subsequent confirmation testing checks whether the fixes resolved the problem. |
| 37 | Q37: Majority of system errors occur in the _________ phase A Requirements Phase B Design Phase C Development Phase D Testing Phase Click here for answer Correct Answer : d Explanation: The majority of system errors occur in the Testing Phase, where the system is tested for defects or issues before it is deployed. |
| 38 | Q38: When to stop Testing? A Stop when scheduled time for testing expires B Stop if 75% of the pre-defined number of errors is detected. C Stop when all the test cases execute with detecting few errors. D None above Click here for answer Correct Answer : a Explanation: The most common factors that are taken into account when deciding when to stop testing are: Deadlines, Test budget, Percentage of test cases passed, Extent of functionality or requirements covered, Minimum accepted bug rate, Duration of beta or alpha testing periods So, from the given options. Option (a) is the correct answer as for when scheduled time for testing expires, the testing activity needs to be stopped. |
| 39 | Q39: Which of the following is an objective of software testing? A Determine the productivity of programmers B Eliminate the need for future program maintenance C Eliminate every error prior to release D Uncover software defects Click here for answer Correct Answer : d Explanation: The correct answer is D. Uncover software defects because one of the main objectives of testing is to find defects and reduce risk. A. Determine the productivity of programmers is incorrect because testing evaluates software quality, not developer productivity. B. Eliminate the need for future maintenance is incorrect because software maintenance is usually still required after release. C. Eliminate every defect before release is incorrect because testing cannot guarantee that all defects will be found. |
| 40 | Q40: Failure is _________ A Incorrect program behaviour due to a fault in the program B Bug found before product Release C Bug found after product Release D Bug found during Design phase Click here for answer Correct Answer : a Explanation: The correct answer is A because a failure occurs when the software behaves differently from the expected result due to one or more defects. B. Bug found before product release is incorrect because this describes a defect, not a failure. C. Bug found after product release is incorrect because it is still a defect, only detected later. D. Bug found during design phase is incorrect because it refers to a defect introduced during development, not system failure. |
| 41 | Q41: One Key reason why developers have difficulty testing their own work is: A Lack of technical documentation B Lack of test tools in the market for developers C Lack of training D Lack of Objectivity Click here for answer Correct Answer : d Explanation: The correct answer is D. Lack of objectivity because developers may have author bias and can overlook defects in their own work. Independent testing helps reduce this bias. A. Lack of technical documentation is incorrect because testing difficulties are not mainly caused by missing documentation. B. Lack of testing tools is incorrect because many testing tools are available and this is not the main reason. C. Lack of training is incorrect because even experienced developers may miss defects in their own code due to familiarity. |
| 42 | Q42: Which of the following BEST describes software quality? A Quality means work is completed B Zero defects C Conformance to requirements D Working exactly as designed Click here for answer Correct Answer : c Explanation: The correct answer is C. Conformance to requirements because software quality is commonly measured by how well the product satisfies specified requirements and user needs. A. Quality is job done is incorrect because completing work does not guarantee quality. B. Zero defects is incorrect because quality does not mean absence of all defects. A product may still fail user needs. D. Work as designed is incorrect because software may match the design but still not satisfy requirements or user expectations. |
| 43 | Q43: Independent Verification and Validation (IV&V) is performed by: A Developers who created the software B Test engineers independent from development activities C Project management only D An organization independent of the development team Click here for answer Correct Answer : d Explanation: The correct answer is D because IV&V is carried out by an independent organization or team to reduce bias and provide objective evaluation. A. Done by the Developer is incorrect because developers are not independent. B. Done by the Test Engineers is incorrect because test engineers may still belong to the project team and may not provide full independence. C. Done by Management is incorrect because management is not the performing body for IV&V activities. |
| 44 | Q44: Defects are found most cost-effectively when testing activities start: A Late during test execution B Early in the SDLC C After exit criteria evaluation D After release Click here for answer Correct Answer : b Explanation: The correct answer is B because ISTQB states that early testing saves time and money. Finding defects early reduces rework and prevents defects from propagating to later phases. A. Late during execution is incorrect because fixing late defects is more expensive. C. After exit criteria evaluation is incorrect because this occurs near the end of testing. D. After release is incorrect because defects found in production usually cost the most to fix. |
| 45 | Q45: During which test activity is the test basis reviewed? A Evaluating exit criteria B Test implementation C Test analysis D Test planning Click here for answer Correct Answer : c Explanation: The correct answer is C. Test Analysis because the test basis (requirements, specifications, user stories, etc.) is reviewed during test analysis to identify test conditions and evaluate testability. A. Evaluating exit criteria is incorrect because it checks completion status and reporting activities. B. Test Implementation is incorrect because it focuses on preparing test procedures, test data, and environments. D. Test Planning is incorrect because it defines scope, objectives, schedule, and strategy. |
| 46 | Q46: Which of the following statements BEST describes one of the seven key principles of software testing? A Automated tests are better than manual tests for avoiding the Exhaustive Testing. B Exhaustive testing is, with sufficient effort and tool support, feasible for all software. C It is normally impossible to test all input/output combinations for a software system. D The purpose of testing is to demonstrate the absence of defects. Click here for answer Correct Answer : c Explanation: The testing Principle described here is: Exhaustive testing is impossible. Testing everything is not feasible except in trivial cases. Rather than attempting to test exhaustively, test techniques, test case prioritization, and risk-based testing, should be used to focus test efforts. |
| 47 | Q47: Which of the following statements is the MOST valid goal for a test team? A Determine whether enough component testing was executed. B Cause as many failures as possible so that faults can be identified and corrected. C Prove that all faults are identified. D Prove that any remaining faults will not cause any failures. Click here for answer Correct Answer : b Explanation: The correct answer is B. Cause as many failures as possible so that faults can be identified and corrected because one of the objectives of testing is to find defects by causing failures and reducing risk. A. Determine whether enough component testing was executed is incorrect because this is a monitoring or assessment activity, not the main goal of a test team. C. Prove that all faults are identified is incorrect because testing cannot prove that all defects have been found. D. Prove that remaining faults will not cause failures is incorrect because testing cannot guarantee absence of failures. |
| 48 | Q48: Which of these tasks would you expect to perform during Test Analysis? A Setting test objectives B Reviewing the test basis C Creating test suites D Analyzing lessons learned Click here for answer Correct Answer : b Explanation: The correct answer is B. Reviewing the test basis because during Test Analysis, the test basis (requirements, specifications, user stories, etc.) is reviewed to identify test conditions and evaluate testability. A. Setting or defining test objectives is incorrect because it belongs to Test Planning. C. Creating test suites from test procedures is incorrect because it is part of Test Implementation. D. Analyzing lessons learned for process improvement is incorrect because it belongs to Test Completion activities. |
| 49 | Q49: Below is a list of problems that can be observed during testing or operation. Which is MOST likely a failure? A The product crashed when the user selected an option in a dialogue box. B One source code file included in the build was the wrong version. C The computation algorithm used the wrong input variables. D The developer misinterpreted the requirement for the algorithm. Click here for answer Correct Answer : a Explanation: The correct answer is A. The product crashed when the user selected an option in a dialogue box because a failure is the observed incorrect behaviour of the system during execution. B. One source code file included in the build was the wrong version is incorrect because this is a defect (fault) in the software configuration. C. The computation algorithm used the wrong input variables is incorrect because this is a defect in implementation or design, not an observed failure. D. The developer misinterpreted the requirement for the algorithm is incorrect because this is a human error that may later introduce defects. |
| 50 | Q50: Which of the following statements are TRUE? A. Software testing may be required to meet legal or contractual requirements. B. Software testing is mainly needed to improve the quality of the developer’s work. C. Rigorous testing and fixing of defects found can help reduce the risk of problems occurring in an operational environment. D. Rigorous testing is sometimes used to prove that all failures have been found. A B and C are true; A and D are false. B A and D are true; B and C are false. C A and C are true, B and D are false. D C and D are true, A and B are false. Click here for answer Correct Answer : c Explanation: A. Software testing may be required to meet legal or contractual requirements. ✅ True — Testing may be required to satisfy regulations, standards, contracts, or compliance requirements. B. Software testing is mainly needed to improve the quality of the developer’s work. ❌ False — The main purpose of testing is to evaluate software quality and reduce risk, not to assess developer performance. C. Rigorous testing and fixing of defects found can help reduce the risk of problems occurring in an operational environment. ✅ True — Testing helps identify defects and reduce the likelihood of failures after release. D. Rigorous testing is sometimes used to prove that all failures have been found. ❌ False — Testing can show the presence of defects but cannot prove that all defects or failures have been found. |
| 51 | Q51: Which of the following statements BEST describes the difference between testing and debugging? A Testing pinpoints (identifies the source of) the defects. Debugging analyzes the faults and proposes prevention activities. B Dynamic testing shows failures caused by defects. Debugging finds, analyzes, and removes the causes of failures in the software. C Testing removes faults. Debugging identifies the causes of failures. D Dynamic testing prevents causes of failures. Debugging removes the failures. Click here for answer Correct Answer : b Explanation: The correct answer is B. Dynamic testing shows failures caused by defects. Debugging finds, analyzes, and removes the causes of failures in the software. A is incorrect because testing does not identify the exact source of defects; debugging performs root cause analysis. Prevention activities are also not the main purpose of debugging. B is correct because testing reveals failures, while debugging identifies and fixes the defects causing them. C is incorrect because testing does not remove defects; debugging does. D is incorrect because testing does not prevent causes of failures, and debugging removes defects rather than failures themselves. |
| 52 | Q52: Which of the following is the task of a Tester? i. Interaction with the Test Tool Vendor to identify best ways to leverage test tool on the project. ii. Prepare and acquire Test Data iii. Implement Tests on all test levels, execute and log the tests. iv. Create the Test Specifications A i, ii, iii is true and iv is false B ii,iii,iv is true and i is false C i is true and ii,iii,iv are false D iii and iv is correct and i and ii are incorrect Click here for answer Correct Answer : b Explanation: The correct answer is “ii, iii, iv are true and i is false” because testers commonly prepare test data, create test specifications, and execute tests. i is incorrect because working directly with tool vendors is not typically a core tester responsibility in CTFL. ii is correct because testers prepare and manage test data. iii is correct because testers implement, execute, and record tests. iv is correct because testers create test cases and related specifications. |
| 53 | Q53: Which testware item describes the sequence of actions required to execute test cases? A Test Case B Test Data C Test Procedure D Test Condition Click here for answer Correct Answer : c Explanation: The correct answer is C. Test Procedure because a test procedure defines the sequence of actions or steps required to execute test cases. A. Test Case is incorrect because it contains inputs, preconditions, and expected results, not execution steps. B. Test Data is incorrect because it only provides data used during testing. D. Test Condition is incorrect because it represents an item or feature to be tested, not the execution process. |
| 54 | Q54: Which testware item defines the expected results of a test? A Test Case B Test Procedure C Test Data D Test Results Click here for answer Correct Answer : a Explanation: The correct answer is A. Test Case because a test case contains input values, execution conditions, and expected results used to verify the behaviour of the system. B. Test Procedure is incorrect because it defines the sequence of steps for executing tests. C. Test Data is incorrect because it only contains the data used during testing and not expected outcomes. D. Test Results is incorrect because they are the actual outcomes obtained after execution. |
| 55 | Q55: Which benefits can be achieved by establishing traceability between the test basis and testware? A Configuration management and test data generation B Test case creation and change control C Test conditions and test procedures D Impact analysis and requirements coverage Click here for answer Correct Answer : d Explanation: The correct answer is D. Impact analysis and requirements coverage because traceability helps determine which requirements are covered by tests and identifies the impact of requirement changes on testing. A. Configuration management and test data generation is incorrect because these are separate testing support activities. B. Test case creation and change control is incorrect because traceability supports these activities indirectly but they are not its main benefits. C. Test conditions and test procedures is incorrect because these are testware items, not outcomes achieved through traceability. |
| 56 | Q56: A _____ is the step-by-step method followed to ensure that standards are met A SDLC B Project Plan C Policy D Procedure Click here for answer Correct Answer : d Explanation: The correct answer is D. Procedure because a procedure defines the step-by-step method or sequence of activities to be followed to perform a task and ensure standards or rules are followed. A. SDLC is incorrect because it represents the overall software development lifecycle, not a detailed method. B. Project Plan is incorrect because it defines scope, schedule, resources, and activities of a project. C. Policy is incorrect because a policy defines rules or guidelines, not execution steps. |
| 57 | Q57: Which of the following could be a disadvantage of independent testing? A Developer and independent testing will overlap and waste resources. B Communication is limited between independent testers and developers. C Independent testers are too slow and delay the project schedule. D Developers can lose a sense of responsibility for quality. Click here for answer Correct Answer : d Explanation: The correct answer is D. Developers can lose a sense of responsibility for quality because one possible disadvantage of independent testing is that developers may rely too much on testers and become less focused on quality. A. Developer and independent testing will overlap and waste resources is incorrect because independent testing complements developer testing and is not necessarily wasteful. B. Communication is limited between independent testers and developers is incorrect because limited communication is not an inherent disadvantage of independent testing. C. Independent testers are too slow and delay the project schedule is incorrect because testing speed depends on the project and process, not independence itself. |
| 58 | Q58: Which of the following are MAJOR test implementation and execution tasks? I. Re-executing tests after fixes or changes II. Creating test suites III. Reporting discrepancies IV. Logging the outcome V. Analysing lessons learned A II, III and IV B I, III, IV and V C I, II, III and IV D III, IV and V Click here for answer Correct Answer : c Explanation: The correct answer is I, II, III and IV because these activities belong to Test Implementation and Test Execution. I. Re-executing tests after fixes or changes is correct because tests may be repeated after corrections or modifications. II. Creating test suites is correct because test cases are organized for efficient execution. III. Reporting discrepancies is correct because differences between expected and actual results are reported. IV. Logging the outcome is correct because execution results are recorded. V. Analysing lessons learned is incorrect because it belongs to Test Completion activities. |
| 59 | Q59: What is the benefit of independent testing? A More work gets done because testers do not disturb the developers all the time. B Independent testers tend to be unbiased and find different defects than the developers. C Independent testers do not need extra education and training. D Independent testers reduce the bottleneck in the incident management process. Click here for answer Correct Answer : b Explanation: The correct answer is B. Independent testers tend to be unbiased and find different defects than the developers because independent testing helps reduce author bias and may reveal defects that developers overlook. A. More work gets done because testers do not disturb developers all the time is incorrect because this is not an ISTQB benefit of independent testing. C. Independent testers do not need extra education and training is incorrect because independent testers may still require appropriate skills and training. D. Independent testers reduce the bottleneck in the incident management process is incorrect because incident management is not the main benefit of independent testing. |