ISTQB certification exam questions for chapter Managing the Test Activities

Correct Answer : a

Explanation:
A. Writing a test summary report for stakeholders ✅ Correct

A key activity of evaluating exit criteria and reporting is to summarize test results, assess completion status, and communicate this information to stakeholders through a test summary report.

B. Logging the outcome of test execution ❌ Incorrect

This is part of test execution, where test results, defects, and observations are recorded. It is not part of evaluating exit criteria and reporting.

C. Repeating test activities as a result of action taken for each discrepancy ❌ Incorrect

This describes retesting and regression testing after defects have been fixed, not evaluating exit criteria and reporting.

D. Evaluating testability of the requirements and system ❌ Incorrect

Evaluating testability is performed earlier during test analysis and test design, not during exit evaluation and reporting.

Correct Answer : a

Explanation:
A. a, c, e and f ✅ Correct

These are all activities performed during test planning:

a. Defining test objectives and scope helps determine what testing should achieve.
c. Scheduling test activities and assigning resources is a core planning activity.
e. Defining test completion (exit) criteria establishes when testing can be considered complete.
f. Selecting metrics for monitoring and control supports later measurement of progress and status.

B. a, b and c ❌ Incorrect

b. Designing and prioritizing test cases belongs to test analysis and test design, not test planning.

C. b, d and f ❌ Incorrect

b is test design.
d. Monitoring test progress is part of test monitoring and control, not planning.

D. c, d and e ❌ Incorrect

d. Monitoring test progress is performed during test monitoring and control, after planning activities have been defined.

Correct Answer : b

Explanation:
Correct Answer: B. I, II, and III only ✅

I. Residual technical risk – Correct. Testing can be stopped when the remaining technical risks are considered acceptable.
II. Residual business risk – Correct. The impact of any remaining defects on business objectives must be evaluated.
III. Project constraints such as schedule and budget – Correct. Time, budget, and resource limitations are important factors when deciding whether testing can be completed.
IV. Number of pages in the requirements specification – Incorrect. The size of the requirements document does not indicate whether test completion criteria have been met.

Why other options are incorrect:

A is incorrect because it excludes project constraints (III).
C is incorrect because it includes IV and excludes I.
D is incorrect because IV is not a valid factor for determining test completion.

Correct Answer : c

Explanation:
Test implementation, includes activities such as:

Creating and prioritizing test procedures
Preparing test data
Organizing testware
Preparing test environments

Therefore, test data and test procedures are both prepared as part of test implementation activities.

A is incorrect because network architecture belongs to environment/infrastructure setup.
B is incorrect because operational models and deployment procedures are not test implementation activities.
D is incorrect because business workflows and production releases are outside test implementation.

Correct Answer : d

Explanation:
Correct Answer: to determine when to stop testing ✅

Test completion criteria (exit criteria) define the conditions that must be met before testing can be considered complete. They help determine whether sufficient testing has been performed and whether testing can be stopped.

Why other options are incorrect:

to know when a specific test has finished its execution ❌
This relates to the completion of an individual test case, not the completion of testing activities.
to ensure that the test case specification is complete ❌
Test completion criteria are not used to review or verify test case specifications.
to set the criteria used in generating test inputs ❌
Test inputs are defined during test design, not through test completion criteria.

Correct Answer : d

Explanation:
Correct Answer: All of the above ✅

Define when to stop testing – Correct. Test completion criteria help determine when sufficient testing has been performed.
End of test level – Correct. Completion criteria are used to decide whether a test level can be concluded.
When a set of tests has achieved a specific precondition – Correct. Testing may be completed when predefined criteria such as coverage, quality, or risk targets have been met.

Correct Answer : a

Explanation:
Correct Answer: Determining the test completion criteria ✅

Defining test completion criteria is a key activity of test planning. It establishes the conditions that must be met before testing can be considered complete.

Why other options are incorrect:

Measuring and analyzing results ❌
This is part of test monitoring and control, not test planning.
Implementing corrective actions ❌
Corrective actions are taken during test control when deviations from the plan are identified.
Monitoring and documenting progress ❌
These are test monitoring activities performed during test execution, not during planning.

Correct Answer : c

Explanation:
Correct Answer: Test plan ✅

A test plan describes the scope of testing, test objectives, test approach, resources, schedule, deliverables, and test completion criteria.

Why other options are incorrect:

Test case ❌ Defines inputs, actions, and expected results for a specific test.
Test procedure specification ❌ Describes the sequence of steps for executing tests, not the overall test strategy and planning.
Test design specification ❌ Focuses on test conditions and high-level test cases, not overall test planning.

Correct Answer : b

Explanation:
Correct Answer: B. I, II and III only ✅

Test readiness criteria help determine whether testing can start effectively.

I is correct because requirements and other test basis information must be available.
II is correct because the test environment and necessary tools should be ready.
III is correct because testers, test data, and other required resources should be available.

Why IV is incorrect:
IV refers to a testing outcome or performance measure that can only be evaluated after testing has begun. It is not a criterion for determining readiness to start testing.

Correct Answer : b

Explanation:
Correct Answer: Option B. ✅
Smoke testing is a subset of tests executed on a new build to verify that its critical functionality works and that the build is stable enough for more detailed testing.

Why other options are incorrect:

A ❌ Describes retesting, which verifies defect fixes.
C ❌ Describes regression testing, which checks for unintended side effects of changes.
D ❌ Describes acceptance testing, typically performed to assess business suitability.

Correct Answer : a

Explanation:
Correct Answer: The most important tests first ✅

Testing should be prioritized so that the highest-risk and most business-critical functionality is tested as early as possible. This helps identify important defects sooner and provides stakeholders with early information about product quality.

Why other options are incorrect:

The most difficult tests first ❌
Difficulty is not the primary factor used to prioritize test execution.
The easiest tests first ❌
Ease of execution does not necessarily align with business risk or importance.
The order they are thought of ❌
Test execution should be planned and prioritized, not performed in an arbitrary order.

Correct Answer : a

Explanation:
Correct Answer: A. 1 and 2 only ✅

Risk-based testing prioritizes testing of the most important and highest-risk areas first.

Statement 1 is correct because business-critical functionality should be tested early.
Statement 2 is correct because areas with higher risk or a greater likelihood of defects deserve more testing attention.
Statement 3 is incorrect because test prioritization is based on risk and business importance, not on how easy a feature is to test.

Correct Answer : b

Explanation:
Correct Answer: You do the best testing in the time available ✅

Test prioritization ensures that the most important and highest-risk tests are executed first, maximizing the effectiveness of testing within the available time and resources.

Why other options are incorrect:

You shorten the time required for testing ❌
Prioritization does not necessarily reduce the total testing effort; it helps use the available time more effectively.
You do more effective testing ❌
While prioritization can improve effectiveness, its primary purpose is to maximize testing value within constraints. This option is too vague compared to the correct answer.
You find more faults ❌
Prioritization may help find important defects earlier, but it does not guarantee that more defects will be found overall.

Correct Answer : d

Explanation:
Correct Answer: D. Coverage of the largest number of test conditions ✅

Test case prioritization is primarily driven by risk and business importance, not simply by the number of test conditions covered.

Why other options are incorrect:

A ❌ High-risk areas should typically receive the highest priority.
B ❌ Business-critical requirements should be tested early.
C ❌ Critical functions are usually prioritized because failures can have significant impact.
D ✅ Covering more test conditions does not necessarily mean a test is more important or riskier.

Correct Answer : a

Explanation:
Correct Answer: A. It ensures that the correct versions of testware and test objects are identified and used. ✅

Configuration management helps testers know exactly which versions of software, testware, and test environments are being tested, ensuring traceability and consistency.

Why other options are incorrect:

B ❌ Configuration management tracks and controls changes, but it does not necessarily require change control board approval before testing can proceed.
C ❌ Changes to test objects may be made by developers or other stakeholders, not only testers.
D ❌ Configuration management may include information about tools, but its primary purpose is not to guarantee correct tool configuration.

Correct Answer : a

Explanation:
Correct Answer: A. To determine the most appropriate way to achieve the test objectives for the project. ✅

A test approach defines how testing will be performed, helping the team select appropriate test techniques, levels, priorities, and resources.

Why other options are incorrect:

B ❌ Approval processes are not the purpose of a test approach.
C ❌ Scheduling is part of test planning, not the primary purpose of the test approach.
D ❌ No test approach can guarantee the absence of defects.

Correct Answer : d

Explanation:
D is correct because test case prioritization is part of test planning and risk-based testing, not configuration management.

A ❌ Configuration management identifies versions and baselines.
B ❌ Configuration management records and tracks changes.
C ❌ Configuration management controls access to configuration items.
D ✅ Prioritizing test cases is a testing activity, not a configuration management activity.

Correct Answer : b

Explanation:
Correct Answer: ✅ The metrics-based approach uses calculations from historical data while the expert-based approach relies on team wisdom.

Metrics-based estimation uses historical project data and measurements to estimate testing effort.
Expert-based estimation relies on the experience, judgment, and knowledge of experts.

Why other options are incorrect:

The metrics-based approach is more accurate than the expert-based approach. ❌
CTFL does not state that one approach is always more accurate than the other.
The metrics-based approach can be used to verify an estimate created using the expert-based approach, but not vice versa. ❌
Either approach may be used to validate or complement the other.
The expert-based approach takes longer than the metrics-based approach. ❌
CTFL does not define a general rule about which approach takes more time.

Correct Answer : b

Explanation:
Correct Answer: ✅ Facilities to compare test results with expected results

Configuration management is concerned with identifying, versioning, controlling, and tracking configuration items such as source code, testware, and documentation.

Why other options are incorrect:

Linkage of customer requirements to version numbers ❌
Configuration management can help maintain traceability between requirements and versions.
The precise differences in versions of software component source code ❌
Version control systems can identify and track differences between software versions.
Restricted access to the source code library ❌
Configuration management commonly controls access to configuration items.

Correct Answer : c

Explanation:
Correct Answer: Threat to a patient's life ✅

This is a product risk because it represents a potential harmful consequence caused by a failure of the software product during use.

Why other options are incorrect:

Not enough qualified testers to complete the planned tests ❌
This is a project risk because it affects the testing project and its execution.
Software delivery is behind schedule ❌
This is a project risk related to planning and project management.
3rd party supplier does not supply as stipulated ❌
This is a project risk because it can impact project schedule, cost, or resources.

Correct Answer : b

Explanation:
B. Test environment and configuration details ✅

Environment and configuration information helps developers reproduce the defect and determine whether it is specific to a particular hardware, software, or system setup.

Why other options are incorrect:

A. Defect status ❌ Useful for tracking, but not as critical for reproducing and investigating the defect.
C. Name of the tester ❌ Helpful for communication, but not essential for understanding the defect.
D. Estimated effort to fix the defect ❌ This is not normally part of a defect report and is determined later by the development team.

Correct Answer : d

Explanation:
Correct Answer: ✅ Number of test cases run / not run; test cases passed / failed

These metrics directly measure the progress and results of test execution, showing how much testing has been completed and the current pass/fail status.

Why other options are incorrect:

Number of detected defects, testing cost ❌
These are project and quality metrics, but they do not directly measure test execution progress.
Number of residual defects in the test object ❌
Residual defects cannot usually be measured directly during test execution and are often estimated.
Percentage of completed tasks in the preparation of test environment; test cases prepared ❌
These metrics relate to test preparation activities, not test execution.

Correct Answer : b

Explanation:
Correct Answer: (I) through (IV) are correct ✅

Defects can originate from weaknesses in processes, requirements, development practices, and project constraints.

I is correct because poor configuration management can introduce defects through incorrect versions or uncontrolled changes.
II is correct because schedule pressure often leads to mistakes and reduced quality activities.
III is correct because unclear specifications can result in incorrect implementation.
IV is correct because failure to follow coding standards can increase the likelihood of defects.
V is incorrect because tester certification is not a direct cause of defects in the software product.

Why other options are incorrect:

(I) and (II) are correct ❌ Omits III and IV, which are valid root causes.
(III) through (V) are correct ❌ Includes V, which is not a root cause of software defects.
(I), (II) and (IV) are correct ❌ Omits III, which is a common source of defects.

Correct Answer : a

Correct Answer : b

Explanation:
Correct Answer: i, ii, iii are correct and iv is incorrect ✅

The following are useful metrics for monitoring test progress:

i. Percentage of Test Case Execution ✅
Shows how much of the planned testing has been completed.
ii. Percentage of work done in test environment preparation ✅
Helps monitor progress of test preparation activities.
iii. Defect information (e.g., defect density, defects found and fixed) ✅
Provides insight into product quality and testing progress.
iv. The size of the testing team and skills of the engineers ❌
These are project resources and capabilities, not metrics used to monitor test progress.

Correct Answer : b

Explanation:
Correct Answer: i, ii, iii are true and iv is false ✅

In a risk-based testing approach, identified risks are used to guide testing activities.

i. Determine the test technique to be employed ✅
The level and type of risk can influence the selection of appropriate test techniques.
ii. Determine the extent of testing to be carried out ✅
Higher-risk areas typically receive more thorough testing.
iii. Prioritize testing in an attempt to find critical defects as early as possible ✅
Risk-based testing focuses on testing the most critical areas first.
iv. Determine the cost of the project ❌
Project cost estimation is a project management activity and is not a direct purpose of risk-based testing.

Correct Answer : c

Explanation:
Correct Answer: C. Defect states and workflows may vary between organizations and tools. ✅

CTFL v4.0.1 recognizes that organizations define their own defect workflows and status values according to their needs and processes.

Why other options are incorrect:

A ❌ ISTQB does not prescribe a mandatory defect life cycle.
B ❌ Different defects may follow different workflows.
D ❌ A defect may be closed before all testing activities are completed if the closure criteria are met.

Correct Answer : a

Explanation:
A is correct because reducing scope preserves both the required delivery date and quality level.

B may reduce productivity and quality over time.
C may initially slow the project due to onboarding and coordination.
D compromises quality and violates the stated constraints.

Correct Answer : b

Explanation:
Correct Answer: B. I, II and III only ✅

A test plan typically describes:

Test objectives (what testing should achieve)
Test approach (how testing will be performed)
Test completion criteria (when testing can stop)

Why IV is incorrect:

Detailed test scripts for every test case ❌ are testware created during test design or implementation and are not normally part of the test plan.

Correct Answer : d

Explanation:
Correct Answer: D. Recording the results of individual test executions ✅

Recording test results is performed during test execution. It is not part of evaluating test completion criteria and reporting.

Why other options are incorrect:

A ❌ Evaluating whether test completion criteria have been met is a key activity during test completion evaluation.
B ❌ The team assesses whether additional testing is needed based on the current results and risks.
C ❌ A test summary report is prepared to communicate test results and completion status to stakeholders.

Correct Answer : d

Explanation:
Correct Answer: The likelihood of an adverse event and the impact of the event ✅

The level of risk is determined by combining:

Likelihood — the chance that an adverse event will occur.
Impact — the severity of the consequences if it occurs.

Why other options are incorrect:

The cost of dealing with an adverse event if it occurs ❌
Cost may contribute to the impact, but risk is determined by both likelihood and impact.
The probability that an adverse event will occur ❌
Probability alone is not sufficient; the impact must also be considered.
The amount of testing planned before the release of a system ❌
Testing effort may be influenced by risk but does not determine the level of risk.

Correct Answer : a

Explanation:
A is correct because the test approach should be selected based on factors such as risks, objectives, regulations, available resources, and project context.

B ❌ Personal preferences should not drive the test approach.
C ❌ Organization age is irrelevant.
D ❌ Tool appearance has no impact on the test approach.

Correct Answer : a

Correct Answer : c

Explanation:
Correct Answer: i, ii and iv ✅

Configuration management helps ensure that the correct versions of software and testware are identified, controlled, and tracked throughout the testing process.

(i) is correct because configuration management identifies the exact version of the software under test.
(ii) is correct because it controls versions and baselines of testware items.
(iv) is correct because it records and tracks changes to testware and other configuration items.

Correct Answer : a

Explanation:
Correct Answer: Scheduling test analysis and design tasks ✅

Test planning includes defining the test approach, estimating effort, allocating resources, and scheduling test activities such as test analysis and test design.

Why other options are incorrect:

Initiating corrective actions ❌
This is part of test control, performed when deviations from the plan are identified.
Monitoring progress and test coverage ❌
This is part of test monitoring, not test planning.
Measuring and analysing results ❌
This is performed during test monitoring and evaluation, not during planning.

Correct Answer : a

Correct Answer : a

Explanation:
Correct Answer: Problems in requirements definition ✅

Poorly defined, ambiguous, or incomplete requirements increase the likelihood of defects being introduced into the product and are therefore a product risk factor.

Why other options are incorrect:

Failure of a third-party supplier to deliver on time ❌ This is a project risk factor.
Lack of tester training ❌ This is a project risk factor affecting the testing effort.
Project budget reductions ❌ This is a project risk factor affecting project execution.

Correct Answer : d

Explanation:
A defect report contains information needed to reproduce and investigate a defect. The design or implementation of the fix is normally determined later by the developers and is not part of the defect report.

Correct Answer : d

Explanation:
Correct Answer: To define when to stop testing ✅

Test completion criteria define the conditions that must be met before testing can be considered complete. They help determine whether sufficient testing has been performed and whether testing can be concluded.

Why other options are incorrect:

To enhance the security of the system ❌
Security may be a testing objective, but it is not the purpose of test completion criteria.
To prevent endless loops in code ❌
Preventing coding defects is a development activity, not the purpose of test completion criteria.
To serve as an alternative or 'Plan-B' ❌
Test completion criteria are used to evaluate testing status, not as a contingency plan.

Correct Answer : a

Explanation:
Correct Answer: During test planning ✅

Configuration management procedures should be established during test planning so that testware, test environments, and test objects can be properly identified, version-controlled, and tracked throughout the testing process.

Why other options are incorrect:

During test analysis ❌
By this stage, configuration management procedures should already be in place.
During test execution ❌
Configuration management supports test execution but should not first be implemented at this stage.
When evaluating exit criteria ❌
This occurs near the end of testing and is far too late to establish configuration management procedures.

Correct Answer : a

Explanation:
Correct Answer: Initiating corrective actions ✅

Test control uses information from test monitoring to take appropriate actions when actual progress deviates from the plan. Examples include reallocating resources, reprioritizing tests, or adjusting schedules.

Why other options are incorrect:

Determining the scope ❌
Defining the test scope is a test planning activity.
Implementing the test policy ❌
Test policies are established at the organizational level and are not a specific test control activity.
Scheduling test implementation ❌
Scheduling test activities is part of test planning, not test control.

Correct Answer : d

Correct Answer : a

Correct Answer : c

Explanation:
Poor reliability and performance are quality characteristics of the software product and therefore represent product risks.

A, B, and D are project risks because they affect the project's ability to achieve its objectives rather than the quality of the product itself.

Correct Answer : d

Explanation:
Correct Answer: Error-prone software delivered ✅

Error-prone software is a product risk because it relates to the quality of the software and the possibility of failures in operation.

Why other options are incorrect:

Supplier issues ❌
A project risk because supplier problems can affect schedule, resources, or delivery.
Organization factors ❌
A project risk because organizational changes, priorities, or constraints can impact the project.
Technical issues ❌
A project risk because technical challenges can affect project progress, estimates, and delivery.

Correct Answer : b

Explanation:
B is correct because a test summary report typically includes:

Achievement of test completion criteria
Outstanding defects and residual risks
Deviations from the test plan

Why IV is incorrect:

Detailed source code changes are configuration/development information and are not normally part of a test summary report.

Correct Answer : b

Explanation:
FPA is Function Point Analysis. A function point is a "unit of measurement" to express the amount of business functionality an information system (as a product) provides to a user. Function points are used to compute a functional size measurement (FSM) of software. The cost (in dollars or hours) of a single unit is calculated from past projects.

Correct Answer : a

Explanation:
Correct Answer: Organizational Factors ✅

Organizational factors are project risks because they can affect the project's schedule, resources, priorities, or ability to achieve its objectives.

Why other options are incorrect:

Poor Software Characteristics ❌
This is a product risk because it relates to the quality of the software product.
Error-Prone Software Delivered ❌
This is a product risk because it indicates a higher likelihood of failures in the software.
Software that does not perform its intended functions ❌
This is a product risk because it relates to incorrect or missing functionality.

Correct Answer : b

Explanation:
B is correct because product risks help determine:

Which test techniques to use,
How much testing is needed,
Which tests should be prioritized.

IV is incorrect because project budgeting is not a purpose of risk-based testing.

Correct Answer : b

Explanation:
Correct Answer: Writing a test summary report for stakeholders ✅

After evaluating whether the test completion criteria have been met, the test team communicates the testing results, status, outstanding issues, and residual risks to stakeholders through a test summary report.

Why other options are incorrect:

Creating test suites and cases for efficient execution ❌
This is part of test design and test implementation, not evaluation of test completion criteria.
Handing the testware to the maintenance organization ❌
This may occur during project closure or maintenance transition, but it is not a major activity of evaluating test completion criteria.
Identifying any required infrastructure and tools ❌
This is a test planning activity performed before testing starts.

Correct Answer : d

Correct Answer : b

Explanation:
B is correct because priority determines the order and urgency of defect resolution.

A ❌ Severity measures impact, not urgency.
C ❌ Root cause identifies why the defect occurred.
D ❌ Status indicates the current state of the defect (e.g., Open, Fixed, Closed).

Correct Answer : c

Explanation:
Correct Answer: Test Summary Report ✅

A test summary report communicates:

Testing performed
Test results
Achievement of test completion criteria
Outstanding defects
Residual risks

to relevant stakeholders.

Why other options are incorrect:

Test Plan ❌ Describes how testing will be performed.
Defect Report ❌ Describes a specific defect.
Test Data ❌ Provides input values used during testing.

Correct Answer : b

Explanation:
B is correct because test completion is evaluated using progress metrics such as test execution status and achievement of test completion criteria.

Why other options are incorrect:

A ❌ Defects per tester is not a reliable indicator of test completion.
C ❌ The number of requirements does not indicate testing progress.
D ❌ The number of developers fixing defects does not show whether testing is nearing completion.

Correct Answer : a

Explanation:
Correct Answer: ✅ It is probable that subsystem C has still more hidden defects. Therefore we need to test subsystem C in more detail.

A significantly higher defect density suggests that subsystem C is more defect-prone than the other subsystems. This indicates a higher product risk and justifies allocating additional testing effort to that subsystem.

Why other options are incorrect:

Because we have already found many defects in subsystem C, we should concentrate testing resources on Subsystem A. ❌
A low defect density does not necessarily indicate a higher risk than a subsystem with many detected defects.
Observed defect density does not allow any conclusions about the amount of additional testing. ❌
Defect density is a useful metric for identifying higher-risk areas that may require more testing.
We should try to equalize the amount of testing over all modules to ensure that we test all subsystems evenly. ❌
Risk-based testing focuses effort where the risk is greatest, not on distributing testing equally.

Correct Answer : b

Explanation:
I ✅ Effective testing provides information about quality and defects.
II ✅ Metrics support monitoring and improvement.
IV ✅ Root cause analysis helps prevent similar defects in the future.
III ❌ Legitimate change requests can improve product quality and should not be automatically prevented.

Correct Answer : a

Explanation:
Correct Answer: Test Plan ✅

A test plan describes:

Test objectives
Scope of testing
Test approach
Resources and schedule
Test completion criteria

Why other options are incorrect:

Test Case ❌ Defines inputs, actions, and expected results for a specific test.
Defect Report ❌ Records information about a defect.
Test Data ❌ Provides input values used during testing.

Correct Answer : c

Explanation:
Correct Answer: C. Establishing baselines for testware and software items ✅

Establishing baselines is a key configuration management activity. It ensures that specific versions of software and testware are formally identified and controlled so that changes can be tracked and managed.

Why other options are incorrect:

A. Tracking defect status ❌
This is a defect management activity used to monitor the progress of defects through their lifecycle (e.g., Open, Assigned, Fixed, Closed).
B. Reporting defect trends ❌
This is a defect management activity that helps stakeholders understand defect patterns, product quality, and testing progress.
D. Performing root cause analysis of defects ❌
This is a defect prevention and process improvement activity aimed at identifying the underlying causes of defects and preventing similar defects in the future.

Correct Answer : c

Explanation:
Correct Answer: Configuration control ✅

Configuration control ensures that the correct versions of software, testware, and environments are identified, approved, and used during testing. If a defect reappears after being fixed and successfully retested, it is likely that an incorrect or older version of the software was deployed or tested.

Why other options are incorrect:

Traceability ❌
Traceability helps link requirements, test cases, and defects, but it does not prevent incorrect versions from being used.
Confirmation testing ❌
Confirmation testing was performed successfully, so the problem is not with retesting the fix.
Test documentation management ❌
Managing test documentation does not directly control which software version is deployed or tested.

Correct Answer : b

Explanation:
B is correct because risk level is defined as a combination of:
- Likelihood that an adverse event will occur.
- Impact if the event occurs.

A ❌ Cost and budget do not determine risk level.
C ❌ Staffing levels do not determine product risk.
D ❌ Complexity alone is insufficient to determine risk level.

Correct Answer : c

Explanation:
C is correct because monitoring progress and initiating corrective actions are test management responsibilities.

A ❌ Test analysis and design activity.
B ❌ Test execution activity.
D ❌ Test implementation activity.

Correct Answer : c

Explanation:
C ✅ Test managers monitor progress and initiate corrective actions when deviations from the plan occur.
A, B, D ❌ These are activities typically performed by testers.

Correct Answer : b

Explanation:
B ✅ Poor reliability is a quality characteristic of the software product and therefore a product risk.
A, C, and D ❌ These are project risks because they affect the project's ability to achieve its objectives.

Correct Answer : b

Explanation:
B is correct because test completion criteria commonly include:

Achieved coverage targets,
Acceptable residual risk,
Resolution or acceptance of critical defects.

IV is incorrect because installation of the test environment is a test readiness criterion, not a test completion criterion.

Correct Answer : a

Explanation:
Correct Answer: Skill and staff shortages ✅

Skill shortages and insufficient staffing are project risks because they can affect the project's ability to complete testing and development activities successfully.

Why other options are incorrect:

Poor software characteristics ❌
This is a product risk because it relates to software quality (e.g., poor performance, poor usability, poor security).
Failure-prone software delivered ❌
This is a product risk because it concerns the likelihood of software failures in operation.
Possible reliability defect (bug) ❌
This is a product risk because it relates to a quality problem in the software product.

Correct Answer : b

Explanation:
Correct Answer: When the test completion criteria are met ✅

Testing is stopped when the predefined test completion criteria (formerly called exit criteria) have been satisfied. These criteria may include required coverage levels, acceptable residual risk, defect status, reliability targets, and project constraints.

Why other options are incorrect:

When the specified number of faults are found ❌
Finding a certain number of defects does not necessarily mean testing objectives have been achieved.
When all high and medium priority tests are complete ❌
This may contribute to meeting completion criteria, but by itself does not determine when testing should stop.
When all statements have been executed ❌
Statement coverage alone is not sufficient to determine test completion.

Correct Answer : a

Explanation:
Test monitoring relies on metrics that provide direct visibility into testing progress and status. Executed, passed, and failed test cases are key indicators of test progress and quality.